In my last game vs the Giants I had put in a relief pitcher (Tony Armas) in the 7th inning. He had 3 IP and the final score was 12-3. How/why did it give Armas the save? He was never in during a save situation, he isn't even my closer.
chances are that when u put him in u only had a 3 runs or less lead on ur opponent....and if the relief pitcher ends the game successfully he does indeed qualify for the save as long as the game doesn't become tied during his innings of work. its possible to get a save as far back as the 5th inning, but its a rare occurance these days, but it does happen. i hope i have been a little help to ya.
I don't know what the clarification for a save is. If I remember correctly you must be up 1-3 runs in order for it to be a save.
One of the save situations is pitching 3 or more innings 'effectively'. Meaning its up to the official scorer whether to award a save in that circumstance.
That must have been the case, because I had a 6-0 lead in the 1st inning...I'm not sure if he was ever withing 3 of me. I did not know that pitching 3 or more innings effectivly qualified as a save, I guess I learn something new about baseball everyday! Thanks guys.
Absolutely that's a save. MLB rules are kinda funny in that regard. As the rules are written, you could be up by 20 runs (not that I'm suggesting anyone at LG does that) and if the reliever throws the final 3 innings without blowing the game, he could and in most cases would be credited with a save. On the other side of the coin, if said reliever were to blow the lead and allow the game to be tied again, he would be credited ith a blown save.
Cool, I played baseball for 14 years and I never even knew that I always thought a save was just in the 9th inning up by 1-3 runs. Good deal.
Years ago, before the era of the "closer", 3 inning saves were extremely common. These days they're extremely rare.
